OET Reading Practice
Updated November 3, 2026
The OET Reading sub-test has three parts and 42 questions in 60 minutes. Part A is a 15-minute speed-reading task. Parts B and C share the remaining 45 minutes. This page gives you a short practice set for each part, 14 questions in total. Click an answer to see the explanation.
All texts and questions below are original practice written in the OET format. The hospital, policies and article are fictional, and none of this is official OET material or clinical guidance.
How the Reading sub-test works
| Part | Texts | Questions | Time |
|---|---|---|---|
| A | 4 short texts on one clinical topic | 20 (matching, short answer, sentence completion) | 15 minutes |
| B | 6 short workplace extracts | 6 (3 options each) | 45 minutes for B and C together |
| C | 2 longer articles | 16 (4 options each) |
In the real Part A you write words from the texts, and spelling must be correct. Here, Part A questions are multiple choice so you can check your answers instantly, but practise finding the exact words: that’s the skill the test rewards.
Part A: Pressure injury prevention
Read Texts A to D quickly. In the test you would have 15 minutes for 20 questions, so you can’t read every word. Scan for headings, numbers and key terms.
Text A: Risk assessment
All adult inpatients must have a Braden Scale assessment completed within 8 hours of admission to the ward. Repeat the assessment daily, after any surgical procedure, and whenever the patient’s condition changes. A total score of 18 or below indicates that the patient is at risk of developing a pressure injury, and a prevention plan must be started. Record the score and the date in the electronic nursing record.
Text B: Repositioning and support surfaces
Patients with a Braden score of 12 or below are considered high risk. Reposition these patients at least every 2 hours, including overnight, and record each change on the repositioning chart. Request a pressure-redistributing mattress from the equipment library on the day the high-risk score is recorded. Offload the heels by placing a pillow lengthways under the calves; do not place pillows directly under the heels. Keep the head of the bed at 30 degrees or lower unless contraindicated.
Text C: Classification
| Category | Description |
|---|---|
| Stage 1 | Intact skin with non-blanchable redness |
| Stage 2 | Partial-thickness skin loss with exposed dermis |
| Stage 3 | Full-thickness skin loss; fat may be visible |
| Stage 4 | Full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage or bone |
| Unstageable | Full-thickness loss in which the base is hidden by slough or eschar |
| Deep tissue injury | Persistent, non-blanchable deep red, maroon or purple discolouration |
Text D: Referral and reporting
Refer the patient to the Tissue Viability Nurse (TVN) for any Stage 3, Stage 4, unstageable or deep tissue injury. Referrals are made through the electronic referral system; for urgent advice outside office hours, contact the on-call nurse practitioner. With the patient’s consent, photograph the wound at first identification and weekly afterwards. Any pressure injury of Stage 2 or above that develops after admission must also be reported through the incident reporting system within 24 hours.
Part B: Workplace extracts
Extract 1: Email to ward staff
From 1 July, the ward’s current infusion pumps will be withdrawn and replaced with a new model. All registered nurses must complete the 40-minute online training module before using the new pumps. Staff who have not completed the module by 1 July will be rostered to work alongside a trained colleague until they have done so. Completion certificates are recorded automatically; there is no need to send them to the ward manager.
Extract 2: Medication policy
Verbal orders for medication should be used only in an emergency or when the prescriber cannot attend in person or access the electronic prescribing system. The nurse receiving the order must write it down and read it back to the prescriber, including the drug name, dose, route and frequency. The prescriber must sign the order within 24 hours. Verbal orders are never accepted for chemotherapy agents.
Extract 3: Audit summary
The quarterly hand hygiene audit found an overall compliance rate of 91%, up from 84% last quarter. Compliance before patient contact remained the weakest point, particularly among medical staff during ward rounds. Wards are asked to display their results and to nominate a hand hygiene champion, who will receive two hours of protected time each month for observation and teaching.
Part C: Article
Quiet, please: rethinking noise on hospital wards at night
Ask patients what they remember about a hospital stay, and many will mention the noise: alarms, conversations at the nurses’ station, the clatter of trolleys at 2 a.m. For a long time this was treated as an unavoidable side effect of round-the-clock care. Hospitals, after all, exist to treat people, not to help them sleep.
That attitude is now harder to defend. Poor sleep is linked with confusion in older patients, with higher pain scores and with a slower return to normal activity after surgery. A patient who is woken repeatedly is also less able to take in information the next morning, when ward rounds and discharge planning usually happen. Noise, in other words, is not merely uncomfortable; it can work against the treatment itself.
Some of the solutions are surprisingly simple. Several wards have introduced a “quiet period” from 11 p.m. to 6 a.m., during which lights are dimmed, phones are set to vibrate and routine observations are grouped together so that patients are disturbed fewer times. Staff on one surgical ward described the change as awkward at first; within a month, the night nurse in charge reported that the ward felt calmer for staff as well as patients.
The harder problem is alarms. Monitors and infusion pumps are designed to sound for safety reasons, and no nurse wants to be responsible for silencing one that matters. Yet a large share of alarms do not lead to any clinical action, and staff who hear constant alerts can become slower to respond to the ones that are important. Reviewing default alarm limits for each patient, rather than accepting the factory settings, is one way to reduce the noise without reducing safety.
None of this requires expensive equipment. What it requires is for night-time rest to be seen as part of care, planned and protected in the same way as medication rounds, rather than something patients must manage on their own with earplugs.
The questions
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Part A: Which text would tell you how to classify a wound in which bone is visible?Answer: CThe classification table describes Stage 4 as full-thickness skin and tissue loss with exposed fascia, muscle, tendon, ligament, cartilage "or bone".
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Part A: Which text tells you whom to contact about a deep tissue injury out of hours?Answer: DText D covers referral. Deep tissue injuries go to the Tissue Viability Nurse, and for urgent advice outside office hours you contact the on-call nurse practitioner.
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Part A: Which text tells you how often to reposition a high-risk patient?Answer: BText B says patients with a Braden score of 12 or below should be repositioned at least every 2 hours, including overnight.
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Part A: Which text tells you when the risk assessment must be repeated?Answer: AText A says to repeat the Braden assessment daily, after any surgical procedure and whenever the patient's condition changes.
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Part A: Within how many hours of admission must the first Braden assessment be done?Answer: AText A says the assessment must be completed "within 8 hours of admission". 24 hours is the deadline for incident reports in Text D, and 2 hours is the repositioning interval in Text B.
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Part A: A wound whose base is covered by eschar is classified as ...Answer: DText C defines "unstageable" as full-thickness loss in which the base is hidden by slough or eschar. Because the base can't be seen, the stage can't be judged.
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Part A: Where should pillows be placed to offload a patient's heels?Answer: BText B says to place a pillow lengthways under the calves and not to put pillows directly under the heels.
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Extract 1: What does the email tell nurses about the new infusion pumps?Answer: AAll registered nurses must complete the module before using the new pumps; until then, they work alongside a trained colleague. Certificates are recorded automatically, so nothing needs to be sent.
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Extract 2: According to the policy, a verbal medication order ...Answer: CThe nurse must read the order back, and the prescriber must sign it within 24 hours. Verbal orders are limited to emergencies or when the prescriber can't attend or prescribe electronically, and never for chemotherapy.
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Extract 3: What is the purpose of this summary?Answer: BIt reports the compliance results and asks wards to display them and nominate a hand hygiene champion. It doesn't describe the audit method or announce weekly audits.
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Part C: In the first paragraph, the writer describes how night-time noise was ...Answer: BThe writer says noise "was treated as an unavoidable side effect of round-the-clock care". The second paragraph then argues that this attitude "is now harder to defend".
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Part C: Why does the writer mention ward rounds and discharge planning?Answer: AA patient who is woken repeatedly is "less able to take in information the next morning, when ward rounds and discharge planning usually happen". The point is that noise can work against treatment.
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Part C: What does the writer suggest about staff reactions to the quiet period?Answer: CStaff described the change as "awkward at first", but within a month the ward "felt calmer for staff as well as patients".
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Part C: What is the writer's view of alarms?Answer: DThe writer accepts that alarms exist for safety, but suggests "reviewing default alarm limits for each patient, rather than accepting the factory settings" to cut noise without reducing safety.
Tips for OET Reading
- Part A: read the questions, not the texts. Use headings, tables and numbers to jump straight to the answer. Write words exactly as they appear in the text, and check your spelling.
- Part B: identify the purpose. Many questions ask what an extract is telling staff to do, or why it was written. Don’t choose an option just because it repeats a word from the text.
- Part C: follow the writer’s argument. Phrases like “That attitude is now harder to defend” or “Yet” signal a change in direction. Questions often test what the writer thinks, not only what the text says.
- Watch the time. Part A is collected after 15 minutes. In Parts B and C, aim for about 10 minutes on Part B and about 35 minutes on Part C, and answer every question: there’s no penalty for a wrong answer.
More practice
Read the OET test guide for the full format, then try the OET Listening tips or the OET tips and time management page.
Get the OET grade B your registration needs
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